This should go in the Hot Topics section. I'll do that now.
Also, as the above link was already duplicated on the rawpaleodiet yahoo group, I think I should post my previous debunking of the above link, here, as well(more or less):-
First of all, length of time to adapt to a different diet would only
apply to raw foods(eg:- switching from eating raw fruit to eating raw
meat). Even in this case, dietary changes take a very long time to come
about, judging from the Palaeolithic diet timeline:-
http://www.beyondveg.com/nicholson-w/hb/hb-interview1c.shtmlhttp://tinyurl.com/yb3aw7(some geneticists think at least 1 million years is needed). However,
since cooked-foods are so radically different from raw foods and no
other species has ever gone in for cooking its food, over the last few
billion years, it is extremely questionable as to whether humans can
ever fully adapt to a cooked-food diet. To become fully adapted to
cooked-foods, humans would have to not only be able to tolerate the
toxins created by cooking, such as advanced glycation endproducts,
nitrosamines, heterocyclic amines and polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
(PAHs are also a byproduct of fuel-burning, incidentally, and labelled
as a pollutant), but, arguably, one would also have to prove that those
very toxins were needed by the human body(at least if one was trying to claim that cooked-food was "better" for humans than raw food), as the primary difference between raw and cooked is that cooked-food contains less nutrients(usually) per kg, and has toxins in it which raw food doesn't) - unfortunately, current
scientific studies show, very clearly, that humans do suffer from those
toxins:-
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Raw_foodism#Potential_harmful_effects_of_cooked_foods
shortened to:-
http://tinyurl.com/49744tRe the 790,000-fire-claim made in the first post of this thread:- This is actually quite an old claim, not
new at all, and I've debunked it, previously. I do wish the media wouldn't state such
things as a certainty, as most archaeologists all agree on one thing,
that it's impossible to pin down the exact date of the invention of fire
(whether for warmth or cooking), due to inconclusive evidence.
Most archaeologists and palaeoanthropologists point out that the
evidence for the invention of cooking is much stronger for c.250,000 to
300,000 years ago,
http://cogweb.ucla.edu/Abstracts/Pennisi_99.htmlas there's plenty of evidence around for it, yet anthropologists, such
as Wrangham, who make vague claims for earlier times, generally only
have 1 or 2 sites that they can point to - it is extremely unlikely
that cooking or fire for warmth would only be invented in 1 or 2 areas
c.790,000 years ago or whatever, and not transmitted to other tribes,
to any extent, until c.250,000 years ago, when hearths were produced en-
masse.
The evidence from the 790,000-year-claim is also
labelled "inconclusive" by a number of sources, with a mention of how
the site has been partially destroyed etc, and there are a number of
skeptics of this 790,000-year-claim.:-
http://www.newscientist.com/channel/being-human/human-evolution/dn4944http://tinyurl.com/6k2nseHere's a quote from the web, showing how cooking was not in evidence at
Yaakov re the 790,000-year-claim:-
"
A 0.79 Myr old site in Israel [Gesher Benot Ya'aqov, Science 304 (2004)
725)] has more credible evidence, though there does not seem to have
been any cooking or repeated fire creation. The earliest convincing
evidence of fire use for cooking appears at the 0.3-0.55 Myr old late
Homo erectus site at Zhoukoudian in China and the 0.4 Myr old presumed
early archaic Homo sapiens site of Terra Amata near Nice. In both cases
the evidence is primarily in the form of food refuse bones that were
apparently charred during cooking. Unfortunately, there still is not
sufficient evidence at either site to say conclusively that there was
controlled fire in the sense of being able to create it at will.
However, by 100 kya, there is abundant evidence of regular fire use at
Neandertal sites. By that time, they evidently were able to create
fires when they wished to, and they used them for multiple purposes."
http://anthro.palomar.edu/homo2/mod_homo_3.htmWhile the above paragraph gives credence to the Zhoukoudian Caves
evidence, there are plenty of anthropologists who are highly sceptical
of the Zhoukoudian evidence:-
http://www.jstor.org/pss/2743299(Quoted from the above page):- "The association of fire with faunal
remains, stone-tools and hominid fossils is far from conclusive and is
most likely the result of noncultural postdepositional processed
(Binford and Ho 1985, Binford and Stone 1986)".
Also re the weak evidence at zhoukoudian:- " The implication that h.
sapiens was the first in the line of mankind to control fire was
supported by evidence found at a site in Zhoukoudian, China. While it
had been believed for some time that Zhoukoudian was the first site of
controlled fire, evidence found through more exhaustive research
indicates otherwise. There are no hearths at the site in China. Nor are
there any food remnants. Such evidence leads to the belief that the
burnt bones found at the site are probably the result of a natural fire
(Wuethrich). The lack of strong evidence supporting the site as one in
which man's control of fire is displayed supported the belief that h.
erectus lacked technological prowess and culture." taken from:-
http://fubini.swarthmore.edu/~ENVS2/S2003/jloeffl1/envs_paper1dream.htmhttp://tinyurl.com/5lusubIn short, any claims for much earlier dates for the invention of fire
for warmth or for cooking are highly suspect, which is why the
scientific community still sticks(roughly) to the 250,000-years-ago
date for the invention of fire for cooking(as opposed to fire for
warmth), as that's the only time when hearths can reliably be found all
over the place.
Geoff