Thanks to you and JeuneKoq for this instructive debate.
As I understand it, your first reference says that Europeans and Inuit are equally (not differently) adapted to cold. An “adaptation” which is better than that of Africans — as we would all have expected.
OK, so they are equally cold-adapted, I should have checked more closely. The POINT is that they are said to be adapted to cold climates , NOT warm climates. So it is moronic to go on claiming that we are all adapted to warm, African environments.
Not sure if I grasp correctly the meaning of the text of your second link, but I understand that animal skins were worked with hide scrapers as far back as 780,000 years ago. It says “In Europe the need for clothes was much more urgent obviously and the ancestors of Neanderthals got to work on it out of need.” Also “a more likely age of at least 250,000 years for the coalescence of modern clothing lice and hence use of clothes by our ancestors (excepting probably Neanderthals). At that time (all of them) we were still living in Tropical Africa. Why would people begin to use clothes then? I am hunching here that maybe there was some need in order to colonize or otherwise exploit the Ethiopian highlands.”
Seems to me he means that Neanderthals probably had clothes before 250,000 years ago. If so, it doesn’t match your figure of 170,000 years ago, which on the graph is labeled “Median head — clothing louse divergence”.
The whole point is that the general concensus is that the date for the invention for clothes is 170,000 years ago. Sure, this guy thinks that the real figure is 250,000 years ago, but this is a minority opinion formed by just one lone guy! Highly unlikely to be correct, whereas the 170,000 year figure is commonly accepted. And, NO, he definitely does NOT mean that Neanderthals had clothes prior to 250,000 years ago. He even makes a clear EXCEPTION for the Neanderthals. What weakens his argument re the Ethiopian highlands is that clothes are not really suited to the generally warm African climate. But clothes are admittedly more likely to have been used for much colder climates outside Africa. If that is the case, then the advent of clothes 170,000 years ago outside Africa is just one more nail in the coffin of the absurd out of africa hypothesis. And my main point, which was that Neanderthals and previous hominids were easily able to survive in cold climates without any need for clothes is still solid and proven.
Yes, that’s what that article says. But the anthropologist in the link given by JeuneKoq says the contrary: according to him, Neanderthals would likely have had a fur!
The general concensus, is , however, that hominids lost their fur as far back as homo ergaster. The only vaguely valid argument put forward is the finger-ridge one. What is a clincher is that a dna analysis of a neanderthal woman's body showed that she did not have fur on her:-
http://www.dailymail.co.uk/sciencetech/article-1058538/Meet-Wilma-The-face-Neanderthal-woman-revealed-time.html I agree, but it doesn’t necessarily make the “multiregional hypothesis” correct either! Arguments for or against each theory is a task for top experts in anthropology and since I’m far from being one, I’m totally unable and unwilling to say which one of these hypothesis is most correct — as even these experts disagree between them.
It shows that no one really knows, the paleo-anthropology still being in its infancy and thus extremely unreliable.
Not really. What I have demonstrably shown is that one of THE key tenets of the out of africa theory has been disproven(the one that stated that humans never interbred with the Neanderthals or other apemen). The multiregional hypothesis is therefore in a stronger position.
An adaptation to a new environment is not always possible or it may take longer than that. It doesn’t seem so difficult for a species to adapt to a new environment, but what do we know?
Pure equivocation. Plenty of other wildlife has adapted to big extremes of temperature in a much smaller period of time. The point being that many hundreds of thousands of years/1 or 2 millions of years is more than enough to adapt.
Anyway, there’s still fact that no modern human on this planet have been known to permanently live without any clothing in cold and even temperate climate. It seems to show that adaptation to these climates is very partial for modern men while it seems to have been much better for Heidelbergensis and Neanderthals. So what? Isn’it logical to conclude that we, homo sapiens sapiens, have not inherited much DNA from those subspecies? Why do so many people go to warm and tropical regions for their holidays? Granted, some like to go to cold places, but they’re clearly a tiny minority.
The above claim isn't quite true. For example, the Gauls in ancient France were well known to routinely fight stark naked in battles. So far, despite primitive dna technology, we are estimated to have anywhere up to 20% Neanderthal dna and that does not even include many other possibilities re admixture with other types of "apemen", so we are likely to have a much higher percentage of hominid dna than you would like to think.
The claim re "most" people wanting to go to warm climates for their holidays is rather bogus. For one thing, we live in a modern environment where most of us have access to central heating so that we may simply be used to warmer temperatures out of lifelong habit, nothing else. Then there is the issue of all those immigrants from the 3rd world looking for a better life, but, interestingly, always seeking out colder climates when possible.
From my own experience, I can safely state that my parents were much better adapted to the cold than I ever was, simply because they had no access to central heating so were more prone to frostbite so their bodies were forced to adapt much harder in order to survive.